RBI Grade B Officer (General / DEPR / DSIM) 2023 · Question 110 of 260
Quantitative Aptitude
2 Detailed solution: All divisors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 12 itself. Now, if N is divisible by 12, then it is automatically divisible by all other divisors. So, it cannot be divisible by at most two divisors. So, N is not divisible by 12. Similarly, N cannot be divisible by 6 or 4. In other perspective, N can ONLY be divisible by the prime factors of 12. So, N can be divisible by 2 or 3 but not by both. N can be 1 also. So, possible values of N can be 1, 2a, and 3b where a and b are natural numbers. So, the HCF of 1, 2a, and 3b is 1. Hence, option 2 is correct. Dear Students, It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document with detailed explanations for the RBI Grade B – Phase 2 - 2023. This document has been meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the RBI grade B exam. Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and types of questions that may appear in their upcoming exam. Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and principles have been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to practice answering questions but also helps you understand the reasoning and logic behind each correct answer. Through explanations, you will be able to reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of the subject matter. We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this document proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success. Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and relevance of the questions, there can be some variations in the question language and options. Therefore, we encourage you to use these questions as a reference point. This will help you acquire a comprehensive understanding of the syllabus and increase your chances of success in the upcoming RBI grade B exam. RBI Grade B 2023 – Phase 2 - Recollected Questions) Sub-section – Objective Q.1) The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Bill, 2021 was introduced in Lok Sabha on March 22, 2021. The Bill seeks to establish the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) as the principal development financial institution (DFIs) for _____________ sector. (1 Marks) A. Finance B. Infrastructure C. Railway D. Roadways E. Export Q.2) From the following details calculate the return to assets ratio. (1 Marks) Income = 100 Lakh Assets = 500 Lakh A. 10% B. 30% C. 20% D. 40% E. 50% Q.3) As per OCEAN model, if a person is organized, self-disciplined and he or she is achievement oriented, then which of the following personality trait can be associated to him or her? (1 Marks) A. Openness B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Neuroticism Q.4) In the field of Management, ____________________ describes the difference between true and exposed emotions. (1 Marks) A. Perception Défense B. Emotional Intelligence C. Cognitive Dissonance D. Emotional dissonance E. Emotional Management Q.5) Which of the following theories of ethics, focusses on consequences of greater good and evil? (1 Marks) A. Teleological Theory of Ethics B. Deontological Theory of Ethics C. Virtue Ethics D. Ethics-Justice Theory E. None of the above Q.6) Generally, _____________ is the principle which focusses on the kind of value which displaces concerns of others (1 Marks) A. Distribution B. Justice C. Right D. Entitlements E. Care Q.7) Under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to _______________ per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. (1 Marks) A. INR 2,50,000 B. USD 2,50,000 C. USD 50,000 D. INR 50,000 E. INR 15,000 Q.8) In the field of Finance, which of the following is an example of Alternative Sources of Finance? (1 Marks) A. Overdraft Credit B. G-secs C. Bonds D. Bank Loan E. Forfaiting Q.9) In general context, which of the following is type of non-Tax revenue? (1 Marks) A. GST B. Custom Duties C. Interest D. Production Duties E. None of the above Q.10) Ramesh lent Rupees 25000 to Suresh for 3 months. After three months Ramesh had to pay rupees 25000 to Rajesh so he underwrote an instrument obliging Suresh to pay rupees 25000 directly to Rajesh and thus absolving himself from the liability. What kind of negotiable instrument will they use? (1 Marks) A. Line of Credit B. Promissory Note C. Bill of Exchange D. Bill of Landing E. Commercial Paper Directions (11-15): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows. Indian Government is committed to provide financial inclusiveness and support to the marginalized and hitherto socio-economically neglected classes. Financial Inclusion is a national priority of the Government as it is an enabler for inclusive growth. It is important as it provides an avenue to the poor for bringing their savings into the formal financial system, an avenue to remit money to their families in villages besides taking them out of the clutches of the usurious money lenders. In the same regard, one such _______”X” _____ scheme to promote financial inclusion, was launched by the government on 15th August 2014, which is one of the biggest financial inclusion initiatives in the world. Moving forward, in order to move towards creating a universal social security system for all Indians, especially the poor and the under-privileged, three ambitious Jan Suraksha Schemes or Social Security Schemes pertaining to Insurance and Pension Sector were announced by the Government in the Budget for 2015-16. The schemes were launched on 9th May 2015, for providing life & accident risk insurance and social security at a very affordable cost namely (a) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (b) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Yojana and (C) Atal Pension Yojana (This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam) Q11) Read the above passage carefully, and identify “____X____” scheme launched by the government on 15th August 2014. (2 Marks) A. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Kalyan Yojana B. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana D. Pradhan Mantri Jan Manthan Yojana E. Pradhan Mantri Jan Yojana Q12. What is the insurance limit under Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana. (2 Marks) A. 1,00,000 B. 3,00,000 C. 2,00,000 D. 4,00,000 E. None of Above Q13. With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, what is the Age limit to join the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana. (2 Marks) A. 50 Years B. 55 Years C. 60 Years D. 65 Years E. 40 Years Q.14. With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, what is the maximum pension received under PM-Atal Pension Yojana. (2 Marks) A. 5000 B. 2000 C. 1000 D. 1500 E. None of the above Q.15) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, what is the premium paid under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana? (2 Marks) A. Rs. 10 B. Rs. 20 C. Rs. 12 D. Rs. 40 E. Rs. 25 Directions (16-18): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows. Motivation is the driving force that compels individuals to act and pursue goals, stemming from internal desires or external incentives. It energizes behavior, directing efforts toward achieving objectives and satisfying needs, influencing performance and satisfaction in various aspects of life. Two eminent contributors to the field of motivation are Abraham Maslow and David McClelland. They have identified specific workplace motivational needs. In this context, David McClelland proposed ______”X”______ motivating elements, while Maslow presented the hierarchical structure of the need pyramid. Their seminal work has significantly advanced the understanding of human motivation in organizational settings. (This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam) Q.16) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, Identify “X” from the following given options. (2 Marks) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of the above Q.17) With regards of the above paragraph, if an employee is currently at the Physiological needs, then what will be the highest level as per Maslow motivational theory. (2 Marks) A. Safety Needs B. Security Needs C. Belonginess Needs D. Self Esteem Needs E. Self-Actualization Needs Q.18) Managers' perceptions of employees can vary significantly. Some may view certain employees as lazy and disliking work, while others may perceive them as enthusiastic and enjoying their job. Identify the theory of motivation which explains such different Managers' perceptions of employees. (2 Marks) A. Adam Equity Theory B. Vroom Expectancy Theory C. Theory X and Theory Y D. ERG theory E. None of the above Directions (19-20): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows. Leadership is the process of guiding and influencing individuals or a group to achieve shared goals. Effective leaders inspire and motivate others, foster collaboration, and make strategic decisions. Leadership involves traits like communication, empathy, vision, and adaptability, empowering people to realize their potential and achieve collective success. Kurt Lewin, a psychologist, made significant contributions to the study of leadership through his research on group dynamics and social psychology. (This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam) Q.19) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, which of the following are the three leadership styles introduced by the Kurt Lewin in 1930? (2 Marks) A. Autocratic, Democratic, and Equity B. Autocratic, Democratic, and Laissez-faire. C. Autocratic, Delegative, and Equity D. Power, Democratic, and Equity E. Autocratic, Democratic, and Supportive Q.20) There are multiple leadership styles which a leader can follow, in the same regard, which of the following is/are the examples of contingency theory of leadership. (2 Marks) A. Fielder Contingency Theory B. House path Goal Theory C. Blake and Mouton Managerial Grid D. Both Option A and B E. Both Option A and C Directions (21-25): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows. A Discussion Paper on ‘Governance in Commercial Banks in India’ was issued by the Reserve Bank on June 11, 2021 to review the framework for governance in the commercial banks. In order to address a few operative aspects received through such feedback, it has been decided to issue instructions with regard to the Chair and meetings of the board, composition of certain committees of the board, age, tenure and remuneration of directors, and appointment of the whole-time directors (WTDs). Under the revised guidelines for Appointment of Directors and Constitution of Committees of the Board, The Chair of the board shall be an independent director. In the absence of the Chair of the board, the meetings of the board shall be chaired by an independent director. The quorum for the board meetings shall be _______”X”________ of the total strength of the board or three directors, whichever is higher. At least half of the directors attending the meetings of the board shall be independent directors. Moreover, banks are required to form, Audit Committee of Board (ACB) and Risk Management Committee of the Board (RMCB). The revised instructions would be applicable to all the Private Sector Banks including Small Finance Banks (SFBs) and wholly owned subsidiaries of Foreign Banks. In respect of State Bank of India and Nationalized Banks (This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam) Q.21) Which part of the of the banking is being addressed by RBI in the above-mentioned passage? (2 Marks) A. Corporate Management B. Corporate Governance C. Risk Management D. Outsourcing the IT process E. Outsourcing the KYC Process Q.22) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, The Audit Committee of the Board (ACB) shall be constituted with only _______________. (2 Marks) A. Independent Directors B. Non-Independent Directors C. Non-executive directors (NEDs) D. Promoters E. None of the above Q.23) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, Under Risk Management Committee of the Board (RMCB), The board shall constitute an RMCB with a majority of NEDs. The RMCB shall meet with a quorum of three members. Meetings of RMCB shall be chaired by an _____________________. (2 Marks) A. Independent Directors B. Non-Independent Directors C. Non-executive directors (NEDs) D. Promoters E. None of the above Q.24) With regard to the above-mentioned paragraph, Identify “X”. (2 Marks) A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 2/3 D. 3/2 E. None of the above Q.25) The Chair of the board may be a member of the RMCB only if he/she has the requisite _________ expertise. (2 Marks) A. Finance Expertise B. Risk management Expertise C. Audit Expertise D. Corporate Expertise E. None of the above Directions (26-28): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows. Rohan's career journey was full of changes, trying out different roles. However, poor communication always held him back. Despite his skills, he felt the need to conquer this obstacle for true success. Like Rohan, many people face multiple barriers to the communication process, some of the them are listed below - A. Misunderstanding due to translation error caused due to lack of proficiency of translator in both languages. B. Lack of confidence of subordinate to communicate and give feedback to superior. C. Rules and regulations hindering the communication and Complexity in Organizational structure D. Lack of time due to pre-occupied mind Lastly, Rohan can improve his communication skills through several steps. Firstly, he should actively listen to others and be open to feedback. Practicing clear and concise expression will help him articulate his ideas better. (This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam) Q.26) With regards to the above-mentioned passage, which of the following is/are example of personal barriers in the communication process. (2 Marks) A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C and B D. Only A, B and C E. Only B and D Q.27) Identify the barriers of communication, wherein the person (Sender or Receiver) is unable to translate the language in the required manner. A. Personal Barriers B. Semantic Barriers C. Organizational Barriers D. Emotional Barriers E. Psychological barriers Q.28) Which of the following is an example of Non-Verbal Communication A. Writing letter B. Memos C. Body Language and Gestures D. Flyers and posters E. Infographics Q.29) Power is the capacity to exert authority, influence decisions, direct actions, or command resources, often to attain specific objectives or maintain control. There are different types or basis of power. Raven has identified power bases of two broad categories: Positional and personal, in the same regards, identify the correct option from below – A. Positional (legitimate, reward, Coercive) , Personal (knowledge, referent) B. Personal (legitimate, reward, Coercive), Positional (knowledge, referent) C. Personal (Charismatic power), Positional (knowledge, referent power) D. Positional (Coercive power), Personal (Reward Power) E. None of the above Q.30) Identify the theory of corporate governance, which is based on the perception that a corporation for its effective function has to forge a number of relations with different people/institutions including suppliers, consumers, employees, government. A. Steward Ship Theory B. Stakeholder Theory C. Agency Theory D. Feedback Theory E. None of the above Sub-section – Descriptive Writing Question 1 - What is Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)? How it will beat other e-commerce giants like Amazon and Flipkart (400 words, 10 marks) Question 2 - What is a code of conduct? How it is implemented in an organization (400 words, 10 marks) Question 3 - RBI has Allowed Pre-Sanctioned Credit Lines Via UPI. How is it a step towards financial inclusion? (400 words, 10 marks) Question 4 - What is the contribution of Henry Fayol in the field of management? Also, explain fourteen principles of management as given by him? (600 words, 15 marks) Question 5 - Discuss the big-five model of personality. (600 words, 15 marks) Question 6 - Briefly explain the Retail direct scheme of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (600 words, 15 marks) RBI Grade B 2023 – Phase 2 - Recollected Questions
Source: RBI Grade B 2023 – Phase 1 recollected questions with answer key (EduTap compilation) · memory-based
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